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Volume 24 - Page 24 of 211 Index | Zoom | |
knew the date of the Lord's return? He said, "occupy" till I come, and if, did we know
the exact date of His appearing, we would give up our business, change our mode of life,
alter our address, or make any other change, does not that indicate that we should make
these changes now, out of love of His appearing, without knowing the times or the
But we must return to the examination of Acts 1: and take up the teaching of the
whole of the book and period in connection with the hope that was then before the
believer. This we shall do in our next article.
The question of Acts 1: 6.
Was it right?
pp. 126 - 129
Were the apostles right when they asked the Lord about the restoration of the kingdom
to Israel? Were they actuated by Jewish prejudice? Should they have asked concerning
the church instead? An affirmative answer has been given by different students to each
of these questions.
But what are the facts? The Lord had spoken to the apostles about the baptism of the
Spirit that they should receive "not many days hence" (Acts 1: 5), and the next verse
records their question which we are considering:--
"When they therefore were come together, they asked of Him, saying, Lord, wilt Thou
at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?" (Acts 1: 6).
It is essential to keep in mind that during a period of forty days, the apostles had
received instruction as to the O.T. passages that spoke of Christ and His kingdom.
Among these the following from Isaiah would make plain the connection between the
outpouring of the spirit, and the restoration of Israel:--
"Until the spirit be poured upon us from on high, and the wilderness be a fruitful field,
and the fruitful field be counted for a forest . . . . . My people shall dwell in a peaceable
habitation, and is sure dwellings, and in quiet resting places" (Isa. 32: 15-18).
A number of like passages would occur to any well-taught reader of the O.T., such as
the apostles were, and until the reader is in possession of at least some of these passages,
he cannot be competent to judge the matter of the rightness of the question of Acts 1: 6.
Coupled with this let us remember that He Who opened up the Scriptures during those
40 days, at the same time "opened their understanding". In the face of such a
comprehensive statement is it possible to maintain that prejudice and ignorance prompted
the question of Acts 1: 6?