Let the reader pause for a moment and ask whether a word which

primarily means to 'resolve a thing into its elements', and so return to its

original state, is a fitting word to use for the Second Coming of the Lord

Jesus Christ.  In what way will it be an 'analysis'?  In what way will it be

'a return' in the sense of analysis?  Surely there must be indubitable

evidence for such a rendering before it can be accepted, and that evidence is

not only not found, but is practically denied by the context of Philippians

1:23 when truly presented, and by the larger context of 2 Timothy to which we

now return.

It would add considerable weight to our argument if

we were to show the close parallel that exists between Philippians and 2

Timothy, but two passages only must suffice at present.  (See Philippians3;

and 2 Timothy5).

In Philippians 1:23 we read that the apostle desired analuo, and in

Philippians 2:17 that even should his ministry involve his being poured out

as a drink offering (spendomai) he would rejoice.  In 2 Timothy 4:6 the

apostle says, 'I am already being poured out as a drink offering (spendomai),

and the season for my departure (analusis) has come near'.  Here he uses the

substantive instead of the verbal form, but the parallel is most evident.

That which he desired and was willing for in Philippians has come to pass in

2 Timothy 4.  There is no possible chance of missing the meaning of analusis.

'My analusis' must mean 'my dissolution', my departure, my return.

Philippians 1:23 must be interpreted in the light of 2 Timothy 4:6.  The only

return that analusis can indicate is death.  This also is the meaning of

analuo in Philippians 1:23.  If there is a difficulty in the linking together

of death and of being with Christ, without any explanatory clause to bridge

the intervening period, it is not the only one of its kind, and must not

influence our decision.  2 Corinthians 5:8 brings the two together without

feeling the necessity for a parenthetical explanation.  If any should say, is

it possible that Paul would desire to die?  They could also ask, is it

possible for him to be willing to be absent from the body? for although 'and

to be present with the Lord' (or to be with Christ) immediately follows, Paul

himself had taught that it was not until raised from the dead that any could

hope to be 'with the Lord'.

In Philippians 1 the apostle is speaking of his own feelings to those

who knew well his doctrine and hope.  Under such circumstances he expressed

himself in a far different manner from the way he would if he were stating

formal truth.  To have made a digression and explained his belief regarding

the state of the dead and any special feature of his own hope since the

revelation of the Mystery, while it would have been doctrinally true, would

have been false to feeling.  One other mistaken view has helped to lend

colour to the interpretation that Paul desired the return of the Lord, the

truth is, that Paul's hope at the time could not be thus expressed.  We

believe that Paul, entertaining the hope connected with the Mystery, was not

looking for the Lord to return, but for himself and fellow -members to be

'made manifest with Him in glory' where Christ sitteth on the right hand of

God, 'looking for that blessed hope, and the manifesting of the glory of our

great God and Saviour Jesus Christ' (Titus 2:13).

The A.V. is certainly not inspired, neither is it perfect, and many

times we feel how much truth has been hidden or distorted, but we do feel

that in this particular case, with the one correction already suggested

relative to the words, 'I wot not', that it is a good rendering.  If the R.V.

margin be noted, 'I do not make known', then all the rest can remain as