In I Cor. 11: 20, however, we meet a new construction; "the Lord's supper" is in the

Greek kuriakon deipnon instead of the more usual to deipnon tou kuriou, "the supper of

the Lord". Now it is this unusual form that meets us in Rev. 1: 10.  In I Thess. 5: 2 the

original reads He hemera kuriou, whereas in Rev. 1: 10 it reads Te kuriake hemera, "the

Lord's day" instead of "the day of the Lord". Kurios is a noun, kuriakon is an adjective,

and instead of putting the emphasis upon "Lord's" as would be normal in English, the

emphasis is upon the word "day" in Rev. 1: 10.

Is there a scriptural reason for this peculiar mode? Are we to assume that John did it

for the sake of variety? Must we fall back upon the traditional Sunday? No, there is

waiting for us a complete parallel and perfect reason for this change. To illustrate and

explain this, we must ask the reader to turn aside to what may appear at first sight, an

irrelevant subject.

The word generally translated "man" in the N.T. is anthropos and when Paul wished

to speak of "the wisdom of men" (I Cor. 2: 5) or "the heart of man" (I Cor. 2: 9) or even

"every man's conscience" (II Cor. 4: 2), or when Luke wished to speak of one of "the

days of the Son of Man" (Luke 17: 22), they adopted the same mode as in the phrase

"The day of the Lord". We find however that whereas in I Cor. 2: 5, Paul speaks of "the

wisdom of men", in I Cor. 2: 4, he speaks of "man's wisdom". Is there any one who

would seriously advocate the interpretation that Paul referred to two distinct things in

these adjacent verses? Nevertheless, in I Cor. 2: 4 he does not use the word anthropos,

but the word anthropinos, exactly equivalent with kuriakos in Rev. 1: 10.  When we

come however to I Cor. 4: 3 we arrive at the true reason for the change in Rev. 1: 10:

It is obvious that "man's judgment" is set over against "The Lord's judgment". Now,

the margin reveals that the original has no word in I Cor. 4: 3 for "judgment" but reads

"day" and refers the reader back to I Cor. 3: 13 "For the day shall declare it". "Day"

therefore is used interchangeably with "judgment". Further, the Greek reads anthropines

hemeras, exactly like the construction of Rev. 1: 10. Consequently, if the language of

I Cor. 4: 3 cannot be made to refer to any ordinary "day" but refers to "man's day of

judging", which is now, then in perfect correspondence, and as a complete answer to this,

Rev. 1: 10, together with I Cor. 4: 5 and I Cor. 3: 13, must refer to "The Lord's day of

judging" which is yet future. If Rev. 1: 10 refers to the first day of the week, will any

reader tell us which of the "week days" I Cor. 4: 3 refers to?

This, however, is not all. There is further proof in the book of the Revelation that

Rev. 1: 10 refers to a future prophetic day. John said:

We might as well be accurate and remove all additions to the original that warp our

judgment. There is no "the" before "spirit", and "on" is the Greek en and should be

translated "in".