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In I Cor. 11: 20, however, we meet a new construction; "the Lord's supper" is in the
Greek kuriakon deipnon instead of the more usual to deipnon tou kuriou, "the supper of
the Lord". Now it is this unusual form that meets us in Rev. 1: 10. In I Thess. 5: 2 the
original reads He hemera kuriou, whereas in Rev. 1: 10 it reads Te kuriake hemera, "the
Lord's day" instead of "the day of the Lord". Kurios is a noun, kuriakon is an adjective,
and instead of putting the emphasis upon "Lord's" as would be normal in English, the
emphasis is upon the word "day" in Rev. 1: 10.
Is there a scriptural reason for this peculiar mode? Are we to assume that John did it
for the sake of variety? Must we fall back upon the traditional Sunday? No, there is
waiting for us a complete parallel and perfect reason for this change. To illustrate and
explain this, we must ask the reader to turn aside to what may appear at first sight, an
The word generally translated "man" in the N.T. is anthropos and when Paul wished
to speak of "the wisdom of men" (I Cor. 2: 5) or "the heart of man" (I Cor. 2: 9) or even
"every man's conscience" (II Cor. 4: 2), or when Luke wished to speak of one of "the
days of the Son of Man" (Luke 17: 22), they adopted the same mode as in the phrase
"The day of the Lord". We find however that whereas in I Cor. 2: 5, Paul speaks of "the
wisdom of men", in I Cor. 2: 4, he speaks of "man's wisdom". Is there any one who
would seriously advocate the interpretation that Paul referred to two distinct things in
these adjacent verses? Nevertheless, in I Cor. 2: 4 he does not use the word anthropos,
but the word anthropinos, exactly equivalent with kuriakos in Rev. 1: 10. When we
come however to I Cor. 4: 3 we arrive at the true reason for the change in Rev. 1: 10:
"With me it is a very small thing that I should be judged of you, or of man's judgment
. . . . . judge nothing before the time, until the Lord come" (I Cor. 4: 3-5).
It is obvious that "man's judgment" is set over against "The Lord's judgment". Now,
the margin reveals that the original has no word in I Cor. 4: 3 for "judgment" but reads
"day" and refers the reader back to I Cor. 3: 13 "For the day shall declare it". "Day"
therefore is used interchangeably with "judgment". Further, the Greek reads anthropines
hemeras, exactly like the construction of Rev. 1: 10. Consequently, if the language of
I Cor. 4: 3 cannot be made to refer to any ordinary "day" but refers to "man's day of
judging", which is now, then in perfect correspondence, and as a complete answer to this,
Rev. 1: 10, together with I Cor. 4: 5 and I Cor. 3: 13, must refer to "The Lord's day of
judging" which is yet future. If Rev. 1: 10 refers to the first day of the week, will any
reader tell us which of the "week days" I Cor. 4: 3 refers to?
This, however, is not all. There is further proof in the book of the Revelation that
Rev. 1: 10 refers to a future prophetic day. John said:
"I was in the spirit on the Lord's day."
We might as well be accurate and remove all additions to the original that warp our
judgment. There is no "the" before "spirit", and "on" is the Greek en and should be