In I Cor. 15: Paul actually speaks of the things that DIFFER and uses heteros twice

in verse 40, but where he states that one star differs from another star he uses allos! Here

the lexicon rule is reversed. Which is right? According to Matt. 2: 12 the wise men

went `another' way where allos is used, but Rahab is said to have sent the spies by

`another' way and here heteros is used (James 2: 25). Which way did they go?  The

wise men, however, did not consult a lexicon, so all was well. Matt. 19: 9 used allos,

where Rom. 7: 3 uses heteros; is Matthew in error?

Among the proof texts that were submitted was one from John 5: 32, where the

reference is to the `other' Comforter, namely the Holy Ghost, yet the same writer in the

same chapter uses the same Greek word for another Who foreshadows the Antichrist!

Does John contradict John?

Matt. 25: 32, 33 definitely uses the word `sheep' of the `nations' and in the final

regathering; Isa. 19: 23-25 demands that in that One Flock, there shall be Gentiles too.

Let us be thankful for the labours of learned men who have provided us with so many

useful tools, but do not let us make lexicons our masters, nor try to put the living

language of the Word of God into the strait-jacket of modern lexicography, but rather

carefully note the usage of the "words which the Holy Ghost teacheth".