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understanding of the term `Person' and a Scriptural use of the title `The Father' enable
the believer to accept all that is written, without denying the fact that God is one, and
without lowering in the slightest degree the glorious fact that in Jesus Christ, we see the
God of Israel manifest in the flesh.
In the book of the Revelation we read the glorious title of our Saviour, King of Kings,
and Lord of Lords (Rev. 19: 16). In I Timothy this title is associated with His
`appearing' or `manifestation' in the future. So we can now add to what has been said
above, the following:
(1)
In the O.T. economy Jehovah is God manifest.
(2)
In the N.T. economy Jesus is God manifest in the flesh.
(3)
At the Second Coming He will be manifested as Lord of Lords, and King of Kings.
In I Tim. 6: 16 we meet with a group of extraordinary attributes which we
must now consider.
"Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto,
Whom no man hath seen, nor can see" (I Tim. 6: 16).
The same epistle that declares that as "God manifest in the flesh" He was `seen of
angels' declares that in reality He dwells in light unapproachable. The word translated
`immortality' in I Tim. 6: 16 is the Greek word athanasia, a state into which death
cannot enter. In I Tim. 1: 17 "The King eternal, invisible, immortal" the word translated
immortal is aphthartos which indicates a state into which corruption cannot enter. Both
of these words are linked with resurrection. This we will prove in a moment, but before
so doing we ask a question. In what way, and under what necessity does the Scripture
need to tell us that GOD is either immortal or incorruptible? Surely the very essence of
Godhead is that He ever lives, that the idea of death or corruption ever invading the realm
of the Infinite God is unthinkable. Further, if both these words athanasia and aphthartos
imply death and resurrection, in what way can resurrection be used of the Living God?
Before attempting to answer these questions let us satisfy ourselves that death and
resurrection are always in view where these terms appear.
Athanasia.
"This mortal must put on immortality."
"Shall have put on immortality" (I Cor. 15: 53, 54).
"Who only hath immortality" (I Tim. 6: 16).
Here are the only references to this term on the N.T. Can anyone explain why we
should be assured that the Infinite God hath `immortality' when the usage of the word
plainly points to (1) a body, (2) a death and (3) a resurrection? Are we not reading
in I Tim. 1: 17, just as surely as we are reading in I Tim. 6: 16, a revelation concerning
Him Who in the days of His flesh bore the name "Jesus"? He is "The King eternal,
immortal, invisible, God only wise (or with the critical texts, `The Only God' as in the
RV.)". These three references exhaust the occurrences of athanasia. When we turn to
the next word, we find it in two forms aphtharsia and aphthartos. Aphtharsia is the
`immortality' that men may seek (Rom. 2: 7), the `incorruption' associated with the
resurrection body (I Cor. 15: 42, 50, 53, 54) and the `immortality' brought to light by the
Gospel (II Tim. 1: 10).