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bound "for the hope of Israel"? Can we import the hope of Israel into Eph. 1: 18 and
4: 4? Is the hope of Israel entertained by the "twelve tribes", the hope of the Church of
the Mystery?
Again, Pentecostal conditions as defined in Mark 16: 17, 18, including both healing
and the taking up of serpents, find a place in Acts 28: 1-8, and the issue cannot be
evaded, that if Acts 13: saw the beginning of the Church of the Mystery, these
Pentecostal evidences that one is "saved" should apply today. Which one of those who
advocate Acts 13: as the inception of the Church of the Mystery, has ever put into
practice either Mark 16: 17, 18 or emulated Paul in Acts 28: 1-8?
When we come to Paul's epistles written Acts 13:, Israel still occupy their appointed
place. The Apostle must have had an Israelitish audience for him to have written:
"All our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; and were all
baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea" (I Cor. 10: 1, 2).
If we find the reference to "spiritual drink" in I Cor. 10: 3 introduced into the
subsequent chapter on spiritual gifts, as we do in I Cor. 12: 13, how is it possible to deal
honestly with the Apostle's letter if we admit that Israel is present in the one passage but
excluded from the other? When we see such items as healing, miracles, prophecy,
tongues, etc., as the normal experience and possession of the Church of the Mystery, or
even of those who believe they are that company, it will be time to consider with any
seriousness the claim of Acts 13: We could, however, leave all these evidences and
concentrate upon one epistle written by Paul, namely, Romans, to show that long after his
separation at Acts 13:, the people of Israel held an important place in the outworking of
the purposes of God.
First, it is accepted by all recognized commentators, that the epistle to the Romans,
was the last epistle written by Paul before his imprisonment, which started in Jerusalem
and ended at Rome. Consequently, as this is the last word, and the farthest point from the
supposed boundary of Acts 13:, we shall expect to find that Israel have indeed passed
into their lo-ammi condition, and that God has ceased, temporarily, to be called their God.
If the dispensation of the Mystery had really commenced, could Paul have written
concerning the gospel:
"It is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth: to THE JEW
FIRST, and also to the Greek" (Rom. 1: 16).
If the Church of the Mystery already existed, could Paul have said:
"Is He the God of the JEWS only, is He not also of the Gentiles?" (Rom. 3: 29).
If the Church of the Mystery began at Acts 13:, what sense or point could there be in
such a question? The Jew must have had a very dominating influence in the church for
such a question to be reasonable. In Rom. 9: 15 Israel's prerogatives are expressed and
admitted, but Israel today enjoy none of those things which are there credited to them.