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rejoice to know that this foe is already judged and his execution is certain, yet we must
not minimize his opposition, or call sin, his product, by any name that would lead the
thought that Satan's work was God's. In the 1st epistle of John we read:--
"Little children, let no man deceive you . . . . . he that committeth sins is of the devil;
for the devil sinneth from the beginning, for this purpose the Son of God was manifested,
that He might undo the works of the devil" (3: 7, 8).
Here it is clearly taught that sin originates from the devil, and they who practice sin
are said to be "of the devil". This is somewhat different from the idea that man falls as a
result of his nature just a stone falls, for a falling stone is obedient to the law of
gravitation, whereas "sin is lawlessness". Whoever would dream of punishing a stone for
falling? And unless the wrath of God, His hatred of sin, His utter inability to
countenance iniquity, be all taken as something other than mere theatricals, then
something criminal is involved in the idea of sin. Scripture definitely declares sin to be
of the devil, further, the devil sinneth from the beginning. Whenever this period may
have been, we know that THERE lies the origin of sin, and Satan is the originator. The
children of God and the children of the devil have the mark of their father upon them:--
"Whosoever hath been begotten of God doth not commit sin, for His seed remaineth in
him, and he is unable to sin because he hath been begotten of God; by this the children of
God are manifest, and the children of the devil . . . . . Cain was of that wicked one and
slew his brother" (I John 3: 9-12).
We are told that Christ was manifested, not to bring God's plan regarding sin to
perfection, but to take away our sins, and UNDO the works of the devil. Instead of
looking upon sin as a necessary part of God's purpose it is viewed as the work of an
enemy, to undo which required the utmost strength of the Son of God, and to triumph
over which the Father's exceedingly great power.
No writer of the Scripture appears to feel any need to defend God when speaking of
this enemy and his works. Take for example the words of Gen. 6: 5-7:--
"And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every
imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually, and it REPENTED the
Lord that He had made man on the earth, and it GRIEVED Him at His heart; and the
Lord said, I will destroy man whom I have created . . . . . for it repenteth Me that I have
made them."
So far as language is concerned, we may admit that we are dealing here with the
figure of speech called Anthropopatheia. In the words of "Figures of Speech"
(Dr. E. W. Bullinger), figurative language "is never used except to add force to the truth
conveyed, emphasis to the statement of it, and depth to the meaning of it". If sin was a
part of God's purpose, if His mighty plan would have for ever lacked by its omission,
how comes it that He has explained His thoughts and motives that brought about the
flood (a dreadful reality, and no mere figure) in language that speaks of repentance and
grief over the wickedness of His creatures? If sin is the work of His enemy all is clear, if
sin is His handmaid all is confusion.