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1. We see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels.
2. We see Jesus, crowned with glory and honour.
Both the A.V. and the R.V. read, "a little lower than the angels", and place in the
margin, "a little while inferior to", "for a little while lower". The element of time does
not enter into Heb. 1: 4. There is shown the superior dignity of the Son in virtue of His
inherited name. This influences the interpretation of Heb. 2: He who now is infinitely
above angels achieved that glory by humbling Himself, suffering and dying. It is as
important to the right understanding of the crown of glory and honour that we see the
depth of the Lord's humiliation, as it is to the right understanding of His excellent glory
that we realize His position at the right hand of God. In both cases angels are taken as the
standard of comparison, for their position remains unchanged, whereas man fallen in
Adam will be exalted in Christ, and so cannot be so easily compared.
The Psalmist does not glory in the exalted position of man. He does not bid us look at
his excellency--only just a little lower than angels--he rather considers man's low
estate, saying, as he looks abroad upon the creation, "What is man, that Thou art mindful
of him?" The humiliation of the Lord was for a purpose:--
"Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, He also Himself
likewise took part of the same that through death He might destroy him that hath the
power of death, that is the devil.....for verily He took not upon Him the nature of angels"
(2: 14-16).
The argument is parallel, and is the apostle's own expansion. This we can readily
follow by referring to the structure. In both cases it leads to Christ, either as the
archēgon or the archiereus, and in both capacities He is set forth as One who has
suffered. Phil. 1: 6-13 is a passage to which all readers should prayerfully refer.
With what does the apostle link the words "for the suffering of death"? Does he
intend us to understand that the Lord was made a little lower than the angels that He
might suffer death? or does He intend us to understand that Christ was crowned with
glory and honour because of the suffering of death? If we read it as meaning that Christ
was crowned with glory as a result of His death, we shall have a difficulty in the
conclusion of verse 9, "that by the grace of God He should taste death for every man"; He
was not exalted to taste death, but was humbled. The grammar of the apostle's phrase
seems to lead to the following as the meaning:--
"But we see Jesus crowned with glory and honour, who was made a little lower than
the angels for the suffering of death, that so He by the grace of God, might taste death for
every man."
With this agrees Heb. 10: 5:--
"Wherefore when He cometh into the world He saith, Sacrifice and offering Thou
wouldest not, but a body hast Thou prepared Me."
While this translation appears to conform to the requirement of grammar, we cannot
help feeling how fully the alternative rendering fits the theme of the epistle.