determined deliberately not to be gathered as described.  Yet in each case

the meaning is nothing more than "want".  Did the Lord, many a time,

merely express a wish to gather Jerusalem's children, while the

inhabitants deliberately willed not?  Or suppose that we read it thus,

"How many times do I will to assemble your children ..." (Matt. 23:37).

If the Lord did so will, did He fail?  Was He frustrated?

`But how could the Lord have willed to gather together these children at

that time, in view of the facts He made known just about that time

contained in ch. 21 of Luke?  In that chapter He details certain events

which even now are still in the future (verses 10 and 11).  Then, from

verse 12 to verse 24 are many events which were to come "before all these"

things stated in verses 10 and 11.  We might say, Yes, 1900 years before

them at least.  All the events from verse 12 to the middle of verse 24

pertain to the first century, and have been fulfilled.  Then in verse 24

(middle) we have the period between the destruction of the City and the

present.  "And Jerusalem will be (a City) trodden by (hupo, under-by)

Gentiles until what time may be fulfilled seasons of Gentiles".  This cuts

out any hope of a Hebrew Kingdom in the first century.  We cannot place

the events of verses 12 to 24 anywhere but in the first century, and these

events were impending, inevitably, over the Nation during the whole period

of the Acts of the Apostles.  Therefore the Lord never willed to gather

Israel at that time.  But the time is coming when He shall will to

accomplish what He has always wanted to do.  And Israel shall then both

will and want to be His true children, for they shall enter upon the life

of the ages.

`Could we say that the Scribes and Pharisees willed to see a sign, or

merely wanted to see one? (Matt. 12:38).  Mark helps us by telling us that

they were seeking a sign (8:11).

`When the disciples were being tortured by a hurricane, while trying to

row across the lake (John 6:21), Jesus approached them, and according to

the A.V. "they willingly received Him into the ship".  The R.V. says "they

were willing therefore to receive Him into the boat".  These statements,

however, might almost imply that the disciples were conceding something,

or obliging the Lord.  There was more than mere willingness.  The C.V.

shows the proper sense.  "They wanted, then, to take Him into the ship".

Perhaps they felt that with a Man on board Who could walk on the lake

during such a storm, they would be safe.

`Both the A.V. and C.V. say that Pilate was willing to release Jesus (Luke

23:20).  The R.V. says he was desiring to do so.  But the proper sense is

that Pilate was wanting to release Him.  Pilate, however, was overruled by

the mob.

`"The wind bloweth where it listeth" (John 3:8), but did you ever know

that the wind had a will of its own?  And a will that is very erratic and

fickle?  But why not render literally, "The Spirit -- just where He is

wanting (thelei) is blowing (for spiriting), and His voice thou art

hearing".  It would be very strange if the wind had almost unlimited free-

will while human beings had next to none.  Was there not a time when God's

spirit blew strangely upon us, for the first time, and we heard His voice?

And does He not still blow upon us daily and stir us?

`We now approach the noun form (thelema, will), so often used of God,

occurring over 60 times in the N.T.  Strange to say, just as the Hebrew

word olam, when used of God, was always rendered by a word expressive of

eternity, but when used of human beings, was translated by a term

expressing very limited duration, so this noun is almost invariably

rendered by "will".  No one hitherto, it would appear, has had the

temerity to suggest that the real meaning is merely what God wants.  We