- -
19
Now the term, "the righteousness of God", may refer to His own inherent moral character as the Judge of
the world, as we find it used in Romans 3:5,6. But this is a righteousness that condemns us. Again, in Romans
10:3,4 we read of "God's righteousness", where it says of Israel:
"For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not
submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God. For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every
one that believeth".
Now Christ cannot be the end of God's moral character. It must mean something else. Further, these different
references to the righteousness of God associate it with faith. Now no amount of my faith can influence by one iota
the essential righteousness of God Himself. We are therefore forced to look at this expression again to discover how
the righteousness of God can be the power of the gospel, and how it can be associated with faith.
We leave the epistle to the Romans for a moment, and turn to the second epistle to the Corinthians, chapter 5,
and there we read these words:
"God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them ... For He hath
made Him to be sin for us, Who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him" (2 Cor.
5:19-21).
"Not imputing their trespasses to them". Does this mean that God has glossed over the matter of sin? Indeed no,
for how should the throne of His glory stand? There can be no compromising of righteousness with God. For
answer, read once more the closing verse quoted above: "He hath made Him to be sin for us, Who knew no sin".
Our sins, though not imputed to us, were imputed to Him:
"HE was wounded for OUR transgressions, HE was bruised for OUR iniquities: the chastisement of OUR peace was
upon HIM; and with HIS stripes WE are healed. All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to
his own way; and the LORD hath laid on HIM the iniquity of US all" (Isa. 53:5,6).
Which is the greater wonder õ that He, Who knew no sin, should be made sin for us, or that we, who were
nothing but sin, should be made the righteousness of God in Him? Who shall decide? it is all too wonderful, and the
solution of this problem lies outside of our present purpose. We believe that 2 Corinthians 5:21 provides us with the
answer we need as to the meaning of the term, "the righteousness of God", as it is found in the gospel. Let us
therefore return to the epistle to the Romans with this blessed knowledge, and see how fully the righteousness of
God, provided through Christ by faith, covers the guilty sinner, and brings to him the blessing of salvation full and
free.
This righteousness is said to be revealed and manifested:
"For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith"
(Rom. 1:17).
"But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe" (Rom.
3:21,22).
Isaiah the prophet associates revealed righteousness with salvation:
"My salvation is near to come, and My righteousness to be revealed" (Isa. 56:1).
Where Isaiah said it was "near", Paul could say it was "now". This "now" of Paul follows a dreadful revelation
of human guilt and helplessness. All hope of salvation by personal effort is here excluded. Every mouth is stopped,
and all the world found guilty before God:
"Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in His sight: for by the law is the knowledge
of sin. BUT NOW the righteousness of God without the law is manifested" (Rom. 3:20,21).
Do you not see how blessed is this "but now"? What else could have saved us? Nothing in heaven or on earth.
If God Himself had not found a way whereby guilty sinners could be forgiven, a righteousness provided, and at the