Matthew 4:10 in connection with the Lord's temptation in the wilderness, but

although the Saviour used the words, `It is written', it must be admitted

that no such text occurs in our Old Testament Scriptures.  When we turn to

the Septuagint Version, however, we find that Deuteronomy 6:13 is quoted word

for word from that version, except for the one word `worship'.  In Matthew

4:10 the Greek word is proskuneo, but in the LXX of Deuteronomy 6:13 the

Greek word is phobeo, `fear', a correct translation of the Hebrew yare.  We

have here a problem of the first magnitude, but it comes more appropriately

under the heading of Quotations from the Old Testament in the New Testament

rather than under the simpler heading of Worship.  It will perhaps suffice

for the moment if we quote the words with which Appendix 107 of The Companion

Bible opens:

`It is a fact that in quotations from the Old Testament the Greek text

sometimes differs from the Hebrew.

The difficulties found in connection with this subject arise from our

thinking and speaking only of the human agent as the writer, instead of

having regard to the fact that the Word of God is the record of the

words which He Himself employed when He spoke "at sundry times and in

divers manners" ... denying the Divine Speaker and Author the right

that is claimed by every human writer for himself'.

Matthew 4:10 is included in a list of twelve such passages where the

words of the quotation are varied `by omission, addition, or transposition'.

In dealing with Satan, the Saviour adopted the LXX version with the

substitution of proskuneo for phobeo, and the addition of the word `only' for

His own wise purposes.

Coming back now to the general question, we must try to discover why

the words `serve' and `worship' should be used together when idolatry is

spoken of, but not so used when the object of the service or the worship is

the true God.  Can we truly `worship' God, if we do not `serve' Him?  Can we

hope that any `service' we render can be acceptable to Him if `worship' is

absent?  These are our problems, and we have found no solution to them in the

writings of men.  The answer, if it comes at all, must come from the same

source that has provided the problem, the Word of God itself.

In Psalm 105:42 Abraham is called a `servant' of the Lord, but

Melchisedec, who was a priest, and so connected with worship, is not so

described.  Moses, too, is called a `servant' (Josh. 1:1,2), but not so Aaron

the priest.  Joshua, the Captain of the Lord's host, is referred to as the

`servant' of the Lord (Josh. 24:29); but not so Eleazer the priest.  David is

given the title `servant' of the Lord (Psa. 18, title, and 89:3), but not

Abiathar the priest.  Eliakim, the master of Hezekiah's household, is called

a `servant' (Isa. 22:20), as also is Isaiah the prophet (Isa. 20:3), but not

Hilkiah the priest.  The people themselves, both as `Jacob' (Isa. 44:1) and

`Israel' (Isa. 49:3) are called the `servant' of the Lord, but their priestly

office is reserved for a future day (Isa. 61:6).  And even in the case of

Christ Himself, Who is spoken of prophetically as `My Servant' (Isa. 42:1)

and `My Servant the Branch' (Zech. 3:8), we have the testimony of Scripture

that `If He were on earth, He should not be a priest' (Heb. 8:4).  Why, then,

is there this consistent exclusion of `service' from the realm of `worship'?

In spite, however, of this evident separation of the words `worship'

and `service' when used of the Lord, it is clear that when the Lord promised

Moses, `ye shall serve God upon this mountain' (Exod. 3:12), and when He