The equality of Ephesians 2 is that `the both are created one new man',

but one looks in vain for such a creation in Acts 11 or 15.  The equality of

Ephesians 3:6 is unique.  Never before was there a unity which, while

containing Jewish and Gentile believers, could be described as sussoma, a

`joint -body'.

We are afraid that `B' will have to revise his statements, both as to

the absolute identity of Acts 18:6 with Acts 28:28, and as to the connection

between Peter's reference to Pentecostal baptism and Paul's revelation of the

newly-created new man.  If these things can be called identical, it is vain

to `try the things that differ'.  Positive teaching, under these conditions,

would be impossible, for no weight could be given to any word of Scripture,

and truth would sink under a mass of generalities.

Passing from the distinctive epistles of the Mystery, and the peculiar

features of the new dispensation, we come to the question of the relative

place of Jew and Gentile before Acts 28:

`Mr. Welch writes: "In Romans, Paul speaks of the Jew first".  Ah, but

let us turn to his words, and perhaps we shall find that he means first

in order of having the gospel preached unto them, first in time, not

first in superiority.  So look up Romans 1:16; 2:9,10 and 3:9.  "Are we

better than they?  No, in no wise".  Surely words cannot be plainer;

surely, too, such an assumption of racial distinction in the

Pentecostal church is not consistent with the attitude of Christ

towards the Samaritan woman at Jacob's well and His words in John 10:16

and 17:20,21'.

Even if we agree that `first in order' is what the apostle means when,

in Romans 1:16 he says `To the Jew first', the question as to why this should

be stated still requires an answer.  If we were to write, `The power of God

unto salvation, to the Corinthians first, and also to the Chinese', our

readers would naturally want to know why such a statement was written.  It

certainly would not satisfy them to say, `Well, wasn't that the historical

order?'  Further, does Romans 2:9,10 mean that the Jew will be judged `first'

in time?  Are we to understand that in the day when God shall judge the

secrets of men by Jesus Christ (Rom. 2:16), the Jew will be judged some time

before the Gentile?  To take another passage, is there no special

significance, beyond that of mere historic sequence, behind Peter's words

when he said:

`Unto you first God, having raised up His Son Jesus, sent Him to bless

you' (Acts 3:26).

If we read the previous verse, we shall see that there was a definite

reason for this priority:

`Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God

made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all

the kindreds of the earth be blessed.  Unto you first' (Acts 3:25,26).

The fact that the Saviour came to the Jew first (Rom. 15:8), and the

fact that the gospel was preached to the Jew first, was because Israel was

the appointed channel of blessing to the nations of the earth.  A saved

Israel is necessary for the functioning of the promise made to Abraham.  A

saved remnant of Israel enabled the fulfilment of the promise to commence,

but with the setting aside of the channel, the blessing of the nations was

also postponed and awaits the day of Israel's restoration.